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How to compute a Jacobian using polar coordinates?



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4












$begingroup$


Consider the transformation $F$ of $mathbb R^2setminus{(0,0)}$ onto itself defined as
$$
F(x, y):=left( frac{x}{x^2+y^2}, frac{y}{x^2+y^2}right).$$

Its Jacobian matrix is
$$tag{1}
begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix},quad text{and its determinant equals} frac{-1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}.$$

The following alternative computation is wrong at (!) and (!!), and I cannot see why.




Let $phicolon (0, infty)times (-pi, pi)to mathbb R^2$ be the map $$phi(r, theta) =(rcos theta, rsin theta).$$ Let moreover $$tag{2}tilde{F}:=phi^{-1}circ Fcirc phi;$$ then, by an easy direct computation, $$tilde{F}(r, theta)=left( frac1r, thetaright).$$The Jacobian matrix of $tilde{F}$ is, thus, $$tag{!}begin{bmatrix} frac{-1}{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & 1end{bmatrix} , quad text{and its determinant equals } frac{-1}{r^2}.$$On the other hand, by (2) and by the chain rule, the Jacobian determinants of $F$ and $tilde{F}$ are equal. We conclude that the Jacobian determinant of $F$ is $$tag{!!} frac{-1}{r^2}=frac{-1}{x^2+y^2}.$$




The result (!!) is off by a factor of $r^{-2}$ from the correct one, which is given in (1). Equation (!) must also be wrong. Indeed, computing the Jacobian matrix from (2) using the chain rule I obtain the result
$$
begin{bmatrix} frac{x}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} & frac{y}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} \ -frac{y}{x^2+y^2} & frac{x}{x^2+y^2}end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} costheta & -rsintheta \ sin theta & rcos thetaend{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} -frac1{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & frac{1}{r^2}end{bmatrix},$$

which is different from the matrix in (!), and which gives the correct determinant of $-1/r^4$, as it should be.




Can you help me spot the mistake?











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    4












    $begingroup$


    Consider the transformation $F$ of $mathbb R^2setminus{(0,0)}$ onto itself defined as
    $$
    F(x, y):=left( frac{x}{x^2+y^2}, frac{y}{x^2+y^2}right).$$

    Its Jacobian matrix is
    $$tag{1}
    begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix},quad text{and its determinant equals} frac{-1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}.$$

    The following alternative computation is wrong at (!) and (!!), and I cannot see why.




    Let $phicolon (0, infty)times (-pi, pi)to mathbb R^2$ be the map $$phi(r, theta) =(rcos theta, rsin theta).$$ Let moreover $$tag{2}tilde{F}:=phi^{-1}circ Fcirc phi;$$ then, by an easy direct computation, $$tilde{F}(r, theta)=left( frac1r, thetaright).$$The Jacobian matrix of $tilde{F}$ is, thus, $$tag{!}begin{bmatrix} frac{-1}{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & 1end{bmatrix} , quad text{and its determinant equals } frac{-1}{r^2}.$$On the other hand, by (2) and by the chain rule, the Jacobian determinants of $F$ and $tilde{F}$ are equal. We conclude that the Jacobian determinant of $F$ is $$tag{!!} frac{-1}{r^2}=frac{-1}{x^2+y^2}.$$




    The result (!!) is off by a factor of $r^{-2}$ from the correct one, which is given in (1). Equation (!) must also be wrong. Indeed, computing the Jacobian matrix from (2) using the chain rule I obtain the result
    $$
    begin{bmatrix} frac{x}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} & frac{y}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} \ -frac{y}{x^2+y^2} & frac{x}{x^2+y^2}end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} costheta & -rsintheta \ sin theta & rcos thetaend{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} -frac1{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & frac{1}{r^2}end{bmatrix},$$

    which is different from the matrix in (!), and which gives the correct determinant of $-1/r^4$, as it should be.




    Can you help me spot the mistake?











    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4


      2



      $begingroup$


      Consider the transformation $F$ of $mathbb R^2setminus{(0,0)}$ onto itself defined as
      $$
      F(x, y):=left( frac{x}{x^2+y^2}, frac{y}{x^2+y^2}right).$$

      Its Jacobian matrix is
      $$tag{1}
      begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix},quad text{and its determinant equals} frac{-1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}.$$

      The following alternative computation is wrong at (!) and (!!), and I cannot see why.




      Let $phicolon (0, infty)times (-pi, pi)to mathbb R^2$ be the map $$phi(r, theta) =(rcos theta, rsin theta).$$ Let moreover $$tag{2}tilde{F}:=phi^{-1}circ Fcirc phi;$$ then, by an easy direct computation, $$tilde{F}(r, theta)=left( frac1r, thetaright).$$The Jacobian matrix of $tilde{F}$ is, thus, $$tag{!}begin{bmatrix} frac{-1}{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & 1end{bmatrix} , quad text{and its determinant equals } frac{-1}{r^2}.$$On the other hand, by (2) and by the chain rule, the Jacobian determinants of $F$ and $tilde{F}$ are equal. We conclude that the Jacobian determinant of $F$ is $$tag{!!} frac{-1}{r^2}=frac{-1}{x^2+y^2}.$$




      The result (!!) is off by a factor of $r^{-2}$ from the correct one, which is given in (1). Equation (!) must also be wrong. Indeed, computing the Jacobian matrix from (2) using the chain rule I obtain the result
      $$
      begin{bmatrix} frac{x}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} & frac{y}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} \ -frac{y}{x^2+y^2} & frac{x}{x^2+y^2}end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} costheta & -rsintheta \ sin theta & rcos thetaend{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} -frac1{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & frac{1}{r^2}end{bmatrix},$$

      which is different from the matrix in (!), and which gives the correct determinant of $-1/r^4$, as it should be.




      Can you help me spot the mistake?











      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Consider the transformation $F$ of $mathbb R^2setminus{(0,0)}$ onto itself defined as
      $$
      F(x, y):=left( frac{x}{x^2+y^2}, frac{y}{x^2+y^2}right).$$

      Its Jacobian matrix is
      $$tag{1}
      begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix},quad text{and its determinant equals} frac{-1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}.$$

      The following alternative computation is wrong at (!) and (!!), and I cannot see why.




      Let $phicolon (0, infty)times (-pi, pi)to mathbb R^2$ be the map $$phi(r, theta) =(rcos theta, rsin theta).$$ Let moreover $$tag{2}tilde{F}:=phi^{-1}circ Fcirc phi;$$ then, by an easy direct computation, $$tilde{F}(r, theta)=left( frac1r, thetaright).$$The Jacobian matrix of $tilde{F}$ is, thus, $$tag{!}begin{bmatrix} frac{-1}{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & 1end{bmatrix} , quad text{and its determinant equals } frac{-1}{r^2}.$$On the other hand, by (2) and by the chain rule, the Jacobian determinants of $F$ and $tilde{F}$ are equal. We conclude that the Jacobian determinant of $F$ is $$tag{!!} frac{-1}{r^2}=frac{-1}{x^2+y^2}.$$




      The result (!!) is off by a factor of $r^{-2}$ from the correct one, which is given in (1). Equation (!) must also be wrong. Indeed, computing the Jacobian matrix from (2) using the chain rule I obtain the result
      $$
      begin{bmatrix} frac{x}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} & frac{y}{sqrt{x^2+y^2}} \ -frac{y}{x^2+y^2} & frac{x}{x^2+y^2}end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \ -frac{2xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2} & frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} costheta & -rsintheta \ sin theta & rcos thetaend{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} -frac1{r^2} & 0 \ 0 & frac{1}{r^2}end{bmatrix},$$

      which is different from the matrix in (!), and which gives the correct determinant of $-1/r^4$, as it should be.




      Can you help me spot the mistake?








      calculus multivariable-calculus differential-geometry






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 1 hour ago









      Tengu

      2,68411021




      2,68411021










      asked 2 hours ago









      Giuseppe NegroGiuseppe Negro

      17.7k332128




      17.7k332128






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          The Jacobians of the two functions aren't equal by the chain rule.



          In actual fact, $D(phi(frac{1}{r}, costheta)) × Dtilde{F}(r, theta)= DF times D(phi(r, theta))$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            I don't think there is any contradiction here.



            Consider the volume form
            $$ omega_{rm Cart} = dx wedge dy.$$
            Your first calculation shows that the pullback $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$ is given by
            $$ F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) = - frac{1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}omega_{rm Cart}.$$



            Now consider the volume form
            $$ omega_{rm Polar} = dr wedge dtheta.$$
            Your second calculation shows that



            $$ F^star(omega_{rm Polar})=-frac 1 {r^2} omega_{rm Polar}. $$



            We can use this to recompute $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$. In view of the fact that
            $$ omega_{rm Cart} = r omega_{rm Polar},$$
            we have:
            begin{align}
            F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) &= F^star(romega_{rm Polar}) \ &= F^star(r) F^star(omega_{rm Polar}) \ &= frac 1 r left( - frac 1 {r^2}omega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac{1}{r^4} left(romega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac 1 {r^4} omega_{rm Cart}
            end{align}

            which is consistent with the first calculation!





            As for the application of the chain rule, we have:
            $$ (Dbar F)|_{(r, theta)} = D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} (DF)|_{phi(r, theta)} (Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$$



            The key point is that you must evaluate $D(phi^{-1})$ at the point $left(frac x { (x^2 +y^2)}, frac y {(x^2 + y^2)}right)$, not at the point $(x, y)$.



            This is equal to



            $$ D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} = begin{bmatrix} frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} & frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} \ -frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2} & frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}costheta & sin theta \ - rsin theta & rcostheta end{bmatrix}$$
            which is not the inverse of $(Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
              $endgroup$
              – Giuseppe Negro
              39 mins ago












            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            2












            $begingroup$

            The Jacobians of the two functions aren't equal by the chain rule.



            In actual fact, $D(phi(frac{1}{r}, costheta)) × Dtilde{F}(r, theta)= DF times D(phi(r, theta))$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              The Jacobians of the two functions aren't equal by the chain rule.



              In actual fact, $D(phi(frac{1}{r}, costheta)) × Dtilde{F}(r, theta)= DF times D(phi(r, theta))$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                The Jacobians of the two functions aren't equal by the chain rule.



                In actual fact, $D(phi(frac{1}{r}, costheta)) × Dtilde{F}(r, theta)= DF times D(phi(r, theta))$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The Jacobians of the two functions aren't equal by the chain rule.



                In actual fact, $D(phi(frac{1}{r}, costheta)) × Dtilde{F}(r, theta)= DF times D(phi(r, theta))$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 1 hour ago









                George DewhirstGeorge Dewhirst

                1,72515




                1,72515























                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    I don't think there is any contradiction here.



                    Consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = dx wedge dy.$$
                    Your first calculation shows that the pullback $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$ is given by
                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) = - frac{1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}omega_{rm Cart}.$$



                    Now consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Polar} = dr wedge dtheta.$$
                    Your second calculation shows that



                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Polar})=-frac 1 {r^2} omega_{rm Polar}. $$



                    We can use this to recompute $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$. In view of the fact that
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = r omega_{rm Polar},$$
                    we have:
                    begin{align}
                    F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) &= F^star(romega_{rm Polar}) \ &= F^star(r) F^star(omega_{rm Polar}) \ &= frac 1 r left( - frac 1 {r^2}omega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac{1}{r^4} left(romega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac 1 {r^4} omega_{rm Cart}
                    end{align}

                    which is consistent with the first calculation!





                    As for the application of the chain rule, we have:
                    $$ (Dbar F)|_{(r, theta)} = D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} (DF)|_{phi(r, theta)} (Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$$



                    The key point is that you must evaluate $D(phi^{-1})$ at the point $left(frac x { (x^2 +y^2)}, frac y {(x^2 + y^2)}right)$, not at the point $(x, y)$.



                    This is equal to



                    $$ D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} = begin{bmatrix} frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} & frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} \ -frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2} & frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}costheta & sin theta \ - rsin theta & rcostheta end{bmatrix}$$
                    which is not the inverse of $(Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Giuseppe Negro
                      39 mins ago
















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    I don't think there is any contradiction here.



                    Consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = dx wedge dy.$$
                    Your first calculation shows that the pullback $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$ is given by
                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) = - frac{1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}omega_{rm Cart}.$$



                    Now consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Polar} = dr wedge dtheta.$$
                    Your second calculation shows that



                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Polar})=-frac 1 {r^2} omega_{rm Polar}. $$



                    We can use this to recompute $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$. In view of the fact that
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = r omega_{rm Polar},$$
                    we have:
                    begin{align}
                    F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) &= F^star(romega_{rm Polar}) \ &= F^star(r) F^star(omega_{rm Polar}) \ &= frac 1 r left( - frac 1 {r^2}omega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac{1}{r^4} left(romega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac 1 {r^4} omega_{rm Cart}
                    end{align}

                    which is consistent with the first calculation!





                    As for the application of the chain rule, we have:
                    $$ (Dbar F)|_{(r, theta)} = D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} (DF)|_{phi(r, theta)} (Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$$



                    The key point is that you must evaluate $D(phi^{-1})$ at the point $left(frac x { (x^2 +y^2)}, frac y {(x^2 + y^2)}right)$, not at the point $(x, y)$.



                    This is equal to



                    $$ D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} = begin{bmatrix} frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} & frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} \ -frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2} & frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}costheta & sin theta \ - rsin theta & rcostheta end{bmatrix}$$
                    which is not the inverse of $(Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Giuseppe Negro
                      39 mins ago














                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    I don't think there is any contradiction here.



                    Consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = dx wedge dy.$$
                    Your first calculation shows that the pullback $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$ is given by
                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) = - frac{1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}omega_{rm Cart}.$$



                    Now consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Polar} = dr wedge dtheta.$$
                    Your second calculation shows that



                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Polar})=-frac 1 {r^2} omega_{rm Polar}. $$



                    We can use this to recompute $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$. In view of the fact that
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = r omega_{rm Polar},$$
                    we have:
                    begin{align}
                    F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) &= F^star(romega_{rm Polar}) \ &= F^star(r) F^star(omega_{rm Polar}) \ &= frac 1 r left( - frac 1 {r^2}omega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac{1}{r^4} left(romega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac 1 {r^4} omega_{rm Cart}
                    end{align}

                    which is consistent with the first calculation!





                    As for the application of the chain rule, we have:
                    $$ (Dbar F)|_{(r, theta)} = D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} (DF)|_{phi(r, theta)} (Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$$



                    The key point is that you must evaluate $D(phi^{-1})$ at the point $left(frac x { (x^2 +y^2)}, frac y {(x^2 + y^2)}right)$, not at the point $(x, y)$.



                    This is equal to



                    $$ D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} = begin{bmatrix} frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} & frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} \ -frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2} & frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}costheta & sin theta \ - rsin theta & rcostheta end{bmatrix}$$
                    which is not the inverse of $(Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    I don't think there is any contradiction here.



                    Consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = dx wedge dy.$$
                    Your first calculation shows that the pullback $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$ is given by
                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) = - frac{1}{(x^2+y^2)^2}omega_{rm Cart}.$$



                    Now consider the volume form
                    $$ omega_{rm Polar} = dr wedge dtheta.$$
                    Your second calculation shows that



                    $$ F^star(omega_{rm Polar})=-frac 1 {r^2} omega_{rm Polar}. $$



                    We can use this to recompute $F^star(omega_{rm Cart})$. In view of the fact that
                    $$ omega_{rm Cart} = r omega_{rm Polar},$$
                    we have:
                    begin{align}
                    F^star(omega_{rm Cart}) &= F^star(romega_{rm Polar}) \ &= F^star(r) F^star(omega_{rm Polar}) \ &= frac 1 r left( - frac 1 {r^2}omega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac{1}{r^4} left(romega_{rm Polar} right) \ &= - frac 1 {r^4} omega_{rm Cart}
                    end{align}

                    which is consistent with the first calculation!





                    As for the application of the chain rule, we have:
                    $$ (Dbar F)|_{(r, theta)} = D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} (DF)|_{phi(r, theta)} (Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$$



                    The key point is that you must evaluate $D(phi^{-1})$ at the point $left(frac x { (x^2 +y^2)}, frac y {(x^2 + y^2)}right)$, not at the point $(x, y)$.



                    This is equal to



                    $$ D(phi^{-1})|_{Fcirc phi(r, theta)} = begin{bmatrix} frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} & frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{sqrt{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}} \ -frac{frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2} & frac{frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}}{left(frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} right)^2+left( frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}right)^2}end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}costheta & sin theta \ - rsin theta & rcostheta end{bmatrix}$$
                    which is not the inverse of $(Dphi)|_{(r, theta)}$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited 1 hour ago

























                    answered 1 hour ago









                    Kenny WongKenny Wong

                    20.1k21442




                    20.1k21442












                    • $begingroup$
                      I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Giuseppe Negro
                      39 mins ago


















                    • $begingroup$
                      I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Giuseppe Negro
                      39 mins ago
















                    $begingroup$
                    I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Giuseppe Negro
                    39 mins ago




                    $begingroup$
                    I couldn't expect a better answer. You nailed it completely. Also, thank you for suggesting the viewpoint of volume forms; that makes for much slicker computations.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Giuseppe Negro
                    39 mins ago


















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