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A peculiar integral identity
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A peculiar integral identity
Verification of integral over $exp(cos x + sin x)$Integral $int_0^infty frac{sin x}{cosh ax+cos x}frac{x}{x^2-pi^2}dx=tan^{-1}left(frac{1}{a}right)-frac{1}{a}$Sine and Bessel integral extension to imaginary argumentChanging argument into complex in the integral of Bessel multiplied by cosineDerivation of Gradshteyn and Ryzhik integral 3.876.1 (in question)Simpler proof of an integral representation of Bessel function of the first kind $J_n(x)$Fourier Cosine Transform (Parseval Identity) for definite integralA definite integral of the exponential of cosIs there any way to evaluate $int_0^infty cos(bx) sinh(pi x) left[ K_{ix}(a) right]^2 , dx?$A definite integral on a circle with Bessel functions
$begingroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
$endgroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
edited 3 hours ago
chickenNinja123
asked 4 hours ago
chickenNinja123chickenNinja123
9213
9213
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}
Now we integrate that:
begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
&=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$begin{align*}
I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
end{align*}$$ Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
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active
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active
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$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}
Now we integrate that:
begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
&=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}
Now we integrate that:
begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
&=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}
Now we integrate that:
begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
&=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}
Now we integrate that:
begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
&=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
answered 3 hours ago
jmerryjmerry
12.3k1628
12.3k1628
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$begin{align*}
I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
end{align*}$$ Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$begin{align*}
I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
end{align*}$$ Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$begin{align*}
I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
end{align*}$$ Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
Note that
$$begin{align*}
I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
end{align*}$$ Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
$$
answered 3 hours ago
SimonSimon
1294
1294
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago