How to visualize the Riemann-Roch theorem from complex analysis or geometric topology...



How to visualize the Riemann-Roch theorem from complex analysis or geometric topology considerations?


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As the question title asks for, how do others visualize the Riemann-Roch theorem with complex analysis or geometric topology considerations? That is all Riemann would have had back in the day, and he reminds me of Thurston in the sense he just drew a picture and then the proof popped out. Nowadays most formulations of Riemann-Roch are couched in algebraic language and do not invoke any geometric intuition for the complex plane, so I am asking here. Bonus points for pictures.










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  • $begingroup$
    Did you take a look at the original papers of Riemann and Roch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mere Scribe
    2 hours ago
















7












$begingroup$


As the question title asks for, how do others visualize the Riemann-Roch theorem with complex analysis or geometric topology considerations? That is all Riemann would have had back in the day, and he reminds me of Thurston in the sense he just drew a picture and then the proof popped out. Nowadays most formulations of Riemann-Roch are couched in algebraic language and do not invoke any geometric intuition for the complex plane, so I am asking here. Bonus points for pictures.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Did you take a look at the original papers of Riemann and Roch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mere Scribe
    2 hours ago














7












7








7


5



$begingroup$


As the question title asks for, how do others visualize the Riemann-Roch theorem with complex analysis or geometric topology considerations? That is all Riemann would have had back in the day, and he reminds me of Thurston in the sense he just drew a picture and then the proof popped out. Nowadays most formulations of Riemann-Roch are couched in algebraic language and do not invoke any geometric intuition for the complex plane, so I am asking here. Bonus points for pictures.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




As the question title asks for, how do others visualize the Riemann-Roch theorem with complex analysis or geometric topology considerations? That is all Riemann would have had back in the day, and he reminds me of Thurston in the sense he just drew a picture and then the proof popped out. Nowadays most formulations of Riemann-Roch are couched in algebraic language and do not invoke any geometric intuition for the complex plane, so I am asking here. Bonus points for pictures.







ag.algebraic-geometry gt.geometric-topology riemann-surfaces intuition






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  • $begingroup$
    Did you take a look at the original papers of Riemann and Roch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mere Scribe
    2 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    Did you take a look at the original papers of Riemann and Roch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mere Scribe
    2 hours ago
















$begingroup$
Did you take a look at the original papers of Riemann and Roch?
$endgroup$
– Mere Scribe
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
Did you take a look at the original papers of Riemann and Roch?
$endgroup$
– Mere Scribe
2 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

I'll try to give this a shot, but I'm coming from an algebraic geometry perspective. In the case of curves, it's not so clear to me what the line between algebraic geometry and complex geometry is, so I'm not sure if what I'm saying is what you're looking for. Anyways, let's assume that our curve $C$ is not hyperelliptic because I want to use the canonical embedding because embeddings are easier to visualize for me. The Riemann-Roch theorem says for a divisor $D$ on $C$ that
$$
h^0(D)=1-g+deg(D)+h^0(K-D)
$$

We know that $H^0(K-D)$ is measuring sections of the canonical divisor $K$ that vanish on $D$. But in the canonical embedding, $H^0(C,K)=H^0(mathbb{P}^{g-1},mathcal{O}(1))$. Hence, sections of the canonical divisor are just linear homogeneous polynomials on a projective space. Therefore, $H^0(K-D)$ is just hyperplanes in the canonical embedding that contain $D$. Now consider the linear span of $D$, which is some projective space $mathbb{P}^kcong text{Span}(D)$. The linear polynomials that vanish on $D$ are the same as the linear polynomials vanishing on its span, $mathbb{P}^{k}$, and we can compute the number of these. There are $g-1-k$ of them. Plugging back into Riemann-Roch, we get
$$
h^0(D)=deg D-dim text{Span}(D)
$$

I think this statement is more amenable to visualizing because the right hand side just asks you to place a bunch of points on a curve in projective space, and then take their linear span. I have no idea if this is how Riemann thought about it, but it's certainly geometric. If you want to read more, I learned about this from Geometry of Algebraic Curves Volume 1 by Arbarello, Cornalba, Griffiths, and Harris.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    Here is my "visual" coming from the complex (and functional) analysis perspective, due to a novel proof by Taubes. For a holomorphic line bundle $E$ over a genus $g$ surface $C$, the RR theorem states that $ind_mathbb{C}(barpartial)=c_1(E)+1-g$.



    Because the index of a Fredholm operator over a closed manifold does not change if we perturb by a 0th order (compact) operator, $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial+rB)$ for every $rinmathbb{R}_+$ and generic section $BinGamma(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$. Here $B$ acts as a complex anti-linear map in order to define the perturbation of $barpartial:Gamma(E)toGamma(Eotimes T^{0,1}C)$.



    Now we can visualize the (co)kernel of our perturbed operator as $rtoinfty$, because the elements of the (co)kernel localize/concentrate around the zeros of $B$. Thus $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=# B^{-1}(0)$.



    Now we can visualize and appeal to the "geometry" of characteristic classes and sections of bundles: $# B^{-1}(0)=c_1(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$, which equals $2c_1(E)+chi(C)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
      $endgroup$
      – Chris Gerig
      20 mins ago











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    5












    $begingroup$

    I'll try to give this a shot, but I'm coming from an algebraic geometry perspective. In the case of curves, it's not so clear to me what the line between algebraic geometry and complex geometry is, so I'm not sure if what I'm saying is what you're looking for. Anyways, let's assume that our curve $C$ is not hyperelliptic because I want to use the canonical embedding because embeddings are easier to visualize for me. The Riemann-Roch theorem says for a divisor $D$ on $C$ that
    $$
    h^0(D)=1-g+deg(D)+h^0(K-D)
    $$

    We know that $H^0(K-D)$ is measuring sections of the canonical divisor $K$ that vanish on $D$. But in the canonical embedding, $H^0(C,K)=H^0(mathbb{P}^{g-1},mathcal{O}(1))$. Hence, sections of the canonical divisor are just linear homogeneous polynomials on a projective space. Therefore, $H^0(K-D)$ is just hyperplanes in the canonical embedding that contain $D$. Now consider the linear span of $D$, which is some projective space $mathbb{P}^kcong text{Span}(D)$. The linear polynomials that vanish on $D$ are the same as the linear polynomials vanishing on its span, $mathbb{P}^{k}$, and we can compute the number of these. There are $g-1-k$ of them. Plugging back into Riemann-Roch, we get
    $$
    h^0(D)=deg D-dim text{Span}(D)
    $$

    I think this statement is more amenable to visualizing because the right hand side just asks you to place a bunch of points on a curve in projective space, and then take their linear span. I have no idea if this is how Riemann thought about it, but it's certainly geometric. If you want to read more, I learned about this from Geometry of Algebraic Curves Volume 1 by Arbarello, Cornalba, Griffiths, and Harris.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      5












      $begingroup$

      I'll try to give this a shot, but I'm coming from an algebraic geometry perspective. In the case of curves, it's not so clear to me what the line between algebraic geometry and complex geometry is, so I'm not sure if what I'm saying is what you're looking for. Anyways, let's assume that our curve $C$ is not hyperelliptic because I want to use the canonical embedding because embeddings are easier to visualize for me. The Riemann-Roch theorem says for a divisor $D$ on $C$ that
      $$
      h^0(D)=1-g+deg(D)+h^0(K-D)
      $$

      We know that $H^0(K-D)$ is measuring sections of the canonical divisor $K$ that vanish on $D$. But in the canonical embedding, $H^0(C,K)=H^0(mathbb{P}^{g-1},mathcal{O}(1))$. Hence, sections of the canonical divisor are just linear homogeneous polynomials on a projective space. Therefore, $H^0(K-D)$ is just hyperplanes in the canonical embedding that contain $D$. Now consider the linear span of $D$, which is some projective space $mathbb{P}^kcong text{Span}(D)$. The linear polynomials that vanish on $D$ are the same as the linear polynomials vanishing on its span, $mathbb{P}^{k}$, and we can compute the number of these. There are $g-1-k$ of them. Plugging back into Riemann-Roch, we get
      $$
      h^0(D)=deg D-dim text{Span}(D)
      $$

      I think this statement is more amenable to visualizing because the right hand side just asks you to place a bunch of points on a curve in projective space, and then take their linear span. I have no idea if this is how Riemann thought about it, but it's certainly geometric. If you want to read more, I learned about this from Geometry of Algebraic Curves Volume 1 by Arbarello, Cornalba, Griffiths, and Harris.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        I'll try to give this a shot, but I'm coming from an algebraic geometry perspective. In the case of curves, it's not so clear to me what the line between algebraic geometry and complex geometry is, so I'm not sure if what I'm saying is what you're looking for. Anyways, let's assume that our curve $C$ is not hyperelliptic because I want to use the canonical embedding because embeddings are easier to visualize for me. The Riemann-Roch theorem says for a divisor $D$ on $C$ that
        $$
        h^0(D)=1-g+deg(D)+h^0(K-D)
        $$

        We know that $H^0(K-D)$ is measuring sections of the canonical divisor $K$ that vanish on $D$. But in the canonical embedding, $H^0(C,K)=H^0(mathbb{P}^{g-1},mathcal{O}(1))$. Hence, sections of the canonical divisor are just linear homogeneous polynomials on a projective space. Therefore, $H^0(K-D)$ is just hyperplanes in the canonical embedding that contain $D$. Now consider the linear span of $D$, which is some projective space $mathbb{P}^kcong text{Span}(D)$. The linear polynomials that vanish on $D$ are the same as the linear polynomials vanishing on its span, $mathbb{P}^{k}$, and we can compute the number of these. There are $g-1-k$ of them. Plugging back into Riemann-Roch, we get
        $$
        h^0(D)=deg D-dim text{Span}(D)
        $$

        I think this statement is more amenable to visualizing because the right hand side just asks you to place a bunch of points on a curve in projective space, and then take their linear span. I have no idea if this is how Riemann thought about it, but it's certainly geometric. If you want to read more, I learned about this from Geometry of Algebraic Curves Volume 1 by Arbarello, Cornalba, Griffiths, and Harris.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I'll try to give this a shot, but I'm coming from an algebraic geometry perspective. In the case of curves, it's not so clear to me what the line between algebraic geometry and complex geometry is, so I'm not sure if what I'm saying is what you're looking for. Anyways, let's assume that our curve $C$ is not hyperelliptic because I want to use the canonical embedding because embeddings are easier to visualize for me. The Riemann-Roch theorem says for a divisor $D$ on $C$ that
        $$
        h^0(D)=1-g+deg(D)+h^0(K-D)
        $$

        We know that $H^0(K-D)$ is measuring sections of the canonical divisor $K$ that vanish on $D$. But in the canonical embedding, $H^0(C,K)=H^0(mathbb{P}^{g-1},mathcal{O}(1))$. Hence, sections of the canonical divisor are just linear homogeneous polynomials on a projective space. Therefore, $H^0(K-D)$ is just hyperplanes in the canonical embedding that contain $D$. Now consider the linear span of $D$, which is some projective space $mathbb{P}^kcong text{Span}(D)$. The linear polynomials that vanish on $D$ are the same as the linear polynomials vanishing on its span, $mathbb{P}^{k}$, and we can compute the number of these. There are $g-1-k$ of them. Plugging back into Riemann-Roch, we get
        $$
        h^0(D)=deg D-dim text{Span}(D)
        $$

        I think this statement is more amenable to visualizing because the right hand side just asks you to place a bunch of points on a curve in projective space, and then take their linear span. I have no idea if this is how Riemann thought about it, but it's certainly geometric. If you want to read more, I learned about this from Geometry of Algebraic Curves Volume 1 by Arbarello, Cornalba, Griffiths, and Harris.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 1 hour ago









        Samir CanningSamir Canning

        184119




        184119























            3












            $begingroup$

            Here is my "visual" coming from the complex (and functional) analysis perspective, due to a novel proof by Taubes. For a holomorphic line bundle $E$ over a genus $g$ surface $C$, the RR theorem states that $ind_mathbb{C}(barpartial)=c_1(E)+1-g$.



            Because the index of a Fredholm operator over a closed manifold does not change if we perturb by a 0th order (compact) operator, $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial+rB)$ for every $rinmathbb{R}_+$ and generic section $BinGamma(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$. Here $B$ acts as a complex anti-linear map in order to define the perturbation of $barpartial:Gamma(E)toGamma(Eotimes T^{0,1}C)$.



            Now we can visualize the (co)kernel of our perturbed operator as $rtoinfty$, because the elements of the (co)kernel localize/concentrate around the zeros of $B$. Thus $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=# B^{-1}(0)$.



            Now we can visualize and appeal to the "geometry" of characteristic classes and sections of bundles: $# B^{-1}(0)=c_1(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$, which equals $2c_1(E)+chi(C)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
              $endgroup$
              – Chris Gerig
              20 mins ago
















            3












            $begingroup$

            Here is my "visual" coming from the complex (and functional) analysis perspective, due to a novel proof by Taubes. For a holomorphic line bundle $E$ over a genus $g$ surface $C$, the RR theorem states that $ind_mathbb{C}(barpartial)=c_1(E)+1-g$.



            Because the index of a Fredholm operator over a closed manifold does not change if we perturb by a 0th order (compact) operator, $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial+rB)$ for every $rinmathbb{R}_+$ and generic section $BinGamma(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$. Here $B$ acts as a complex anti-linear map in order to define the perturbation of $barpartial:Gamma(E)toGamma(Eotimes T^{0,1}C)$.



            Now we can visualize the (co)kernel of our perturbed operator as $rtoinfty$, because the elements of the (co)kernel localize/concentrate around the zeros of $B$. Thus $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=# B^{-1}(0)$.



            Now we can visualize and appeal to the "geometry" of characteristic classes and sections of bundles: $# B^{-1}(0)=c_1(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$, which equals $2c_1(E)+chi(C)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
              $endgroup$
              – Chris Gerig
              20 mins ago














            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            Here is my "visual" coming from the complex (and functional) analysis perspective, due to a novel proof by Taubes. For a holomorphic line bundle $E$ over a genus $g$ surface $C$, the RR theorem states that $ind_mathbb{C}(barpartial)=c_1(E)+1-g$.



            Because the index of a Fredholm operator over a closed manifold does not change if we perturb by a 0th order (compact) operator, $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial+rB)$ for every $rinmathbb{R}_+$ and generic section $BinGamma(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$. Here $B$ acts as a complex anti-linear map in order to define the perturbation of $barpartial:Gamma(E)toGamma(Eotimes T^{0,1}C)$.



            Now we can visualize the (co)kernel of our perturbed operator as $rtoinfty$, because the elements of the (co)kernel localize/concentrate around the zeros of $B$. Thus $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=# B^{-1}(0)$.



            Now we can visualize and appeal to the "geometry" of characteristic classes and sections of bundles: $# B^{-1}(0)=c_1(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$, which equals $2c_1(E)+chi(C)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Here is my "visual" coming from the complex (and functional) analysis perspective, due to a novel proof by Taubes. For a holomorphic line bundle $E$ over a genus $g$ surface $C$, the RR theorem states that $ind_mathbb{C}(barpartial)=c_1(E)+1-g$.



            Because the index of a Fredholm operator over a closed manifold does not change if we perturb by a 0th order (compact) operator, $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial+rB)$ for every $rinmathbb{R}_+$ and generic section $BinGamma(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$. Here $B$ acts as a complex anti-linear map in order to define the perturbation of $barpartial:Gamma(E)toGamma(Eotimes T^{0,1}C)$.



            Now we can visualize the (co)kernel of our perturbed operator as $rtoinfty$, because the elements of the (co)kernel localize/concentrate around the zeros of $B$. Thus $ind_mathbb{R}(barpartial)=# B^{-1}(0)$.



            Now we can visualize and appeal to the "geometry" of characteristic classes and sections of bundles: $# B^{-1}(0)=c_1(E^2otimes T^{0,1}C)$, which equals $2c_1(E)+chi(C)$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 24 mins ago









            Chris GerigChris Gerig

            9,40625190




            9,40625190












            • $begingroup$
              I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
              $endgroup$
              – Chris Gerig
              20 mins ago


















            • $begingroup$
              I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
              $endgroup$
              – Chris Gerig
              20 mins ago
















            $begingroup$
            I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Gerig
            20 mins ago




            $begingroup$
            I'm too lazy to draw pictures, but it's possible!
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Gerig
            20 mins ago


















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